forked from WycliffeAssociates/en_ulb
deleted then V18, 21
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\s5
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\v 17 Now I say this. The law, which came 430 years later, does not void the covenant previously established by God.
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\v 18 For if the inheritance had come by means of the law, then it would no longer have come by means of the promise. But God freely gave it to Abraham through a promise.
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\v 18 For if the inheritance had come by means of the law, it would no longer have come by means of the promise. But God freely gave it to Abraham through a promise.
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\s5
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\v 19 Why then was the law given? It was added because of transgressions, until the descendant of Abraham would come to those to whom he had been promised. The law was put into force through angels by the hand of a mediator.
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\v 20 Now a mediator implies more than one person, yet God is only one.
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\s5
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\v 21 So is the law against the promises of God? Absolutely not! For if a law had been given that was able to give life, then righteousness would certainly have come by that law.
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\v 21 So is the law against the promises of God? Absolutely not! For if a law had been given that was able to give life, righteousness would certainly have come by that law.
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\v 22 But instead, scripture imprisoned all things under sin. God did this so that his promise to save us by faith in Jesus Christ might be given to those who believe.
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\s5
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